First, the question that every Protestant has heard, which is, where in the Bible does it teach Sola Scriptura? If Scripture does not teach Sola Scriptura, then every Bible Christian should reject it. The Bible however, teaches otherwise.

The Church, the Kingdom of God

Jesus did not promise new Scripture. He promised a Church. A Church that is very visible. As Catholic apologist P writes,

“The English word "church" is derived ultimately through the Gothic, from the Greek for "thing or place pertaining to the Lord." The words for church in the Romance languages (French, Italian, etc) come from the Latin ecclesia, an exact transliteration of the Greek and NT term ekklesia. In the Septuagint (the Greek OT) this word is used some 85 times to translate the Hebrew term qahal (or kahal) which meant in most cases a religious assembly. In the NT ekklesia is found 61 times in Paul's writings (including Hebrews), 23 in Acts, 20 in Revelation, and 11 in the remaining books (source: New Catholic Encyclopedia on "Church," volume 3, page 678). By calling itself the "Church" the first community of Christians recognized themselves as the new qahal, the new People of God (1 Peter 2:9f; cf. Exod 19), the heirs to that original visible Jewish assembly.” (http://www.biblicalcatholic.com/apologetics/debate23.htm)

We read in the Bible:

"In the lifetime of those kings the God of heaven will set up a kingdom that shall never be destroyed or delivered up to another people; rather, it shall break pieces all these kingdoms and put an end to them, and it shall stand forever." (Daniel 2:44)

The kingdom in Daniel 2:44 has been classically identified with the stone of Daniel 2:34-35. More precisely, the "rock" of Matt 16:18 has been identified with that stone from Daniel. The stone -- the Messiah -- crushes this image of iron. Jesus sets up a new kingdom not of this world (John 18:36). The divided kingdom implies the division between the western and eastern empires when Imperial Rome was divided. We see that God will create a KINGDOM. This means that there will be a head, which is the King, who is Jesus. This is striking since in Matthew 16, Jesus talks about building a Church, and then He gives the keys of the kingdom to Peter. This means that the Church IS the kingdom -- a kingdom that is visible (Matthew 13:24-30, 36-43, 47-50). A kingdom is known by its head. Jesus, being the invisible Head, then makes Peter the visible head of the kingdom so that men will know the kingdom.

Bind and Loose and the Keys of the Kingdom

Now that we know that Jesus established a visible Church, we also know what kind of Church this will be. It is an authoritative Church. This Church has the power to bind and loose (Matthew 16:19; 18:18; John 20:21-23). Modern Protestant scholars do not deny this -- they even explain these verses in ways that the Catholic Church and Catholic apologists do today. Notice especially the connection made to Peter as the new "chief steward" (Isaiah 22:15-25) of the kingdom of heaven (the Church) upon earth.

For example, M. Eugene Boring (Disciples of Christ), commenting on the "keys of the kingdom of heaven," "binding" and "loosing" from Matthew 16:19 --

"The 'kingdom of heaven' is represented by authoritative teaching, the promulgation of authoritative Halakha that lets heaven's power rule in earthly things...Peter's role as holder of the keys is fulfilled now, on earth, as chief teacher of the church....The keeper of the keys has authority within the house as administrator and teacher (cf. Isa 22:20-25, which may have influenced Matthew here). The language of binding and loosing is rabbinic terminology for authoritative teaching, for having the authority to interpret the Torah and apply it to particular cases, declaring what is permitted and what is not permitted. Jesus, who has taught with authority (7:29) and has given his authority to his disciples (10:1, 8), here gives the primary disciple [Peter] the authority to teach in his name -- to make authoritative decisions pertaining to Christian life as he applies the teaching of Jesus to concrete situations in the life of the church." (Boring in The New Interpreter's Bible [Abingdon Press, 1995], volume 8, page 346)

Francis Wright Beare (Presbyterian/Reformed) --

"The 'keys' are probably not to be understood as entrance keys, as if to suggest that Peter is authorized to admit or to refuse admission, but rather to the bundle of keys carried by the chief steward, for the opening of rooms and storechambers within the house -- symbols of responsibilities to be exercised within the house of God (cf. Mt 24:45, etc.). 'Bind' and 'loose" are technical terms of the rabbinic vocabulary, denoting the authoritative declaration that an action or course of conduct is permitted or forbidden by the Law of Moses." (Beare in The Gospel According to Matthew [Harper and Row, 1981], page 355-356)

Eduard Schweizer (Presbyterian/Reformed) --

"In Jewish interpretation, the key of David refers to the teachers of the Law (exiled in Babylon); according to Matthew 23:13, the 'keys of the Kingdom of heaven' are in the hands of the teachers of the Law. A contrast is here drawn between them and Peter. He is thus not the gatekeeper of heaven, but the steward of the Kingdom of heaven upon earth. His function is described in more detail as 'binding and loosing' ....the saying must from the very outset have referred to an authority like that of the teachers of the Law. In this context, 'binding" and 'loosing' refer to the magisterium to declare a commandment binding or not binding....For Matthew, however, there is only one correct interpretation of the Law, that of Jesus. This is accessible to the community through the tradition of Peter...Probably we are dealing here mostly with teaching authority, and always with the understanding that God must ratify what Petrine tradition declares permitted or forbidden in the community." (Schweizer in The Good News According to Matthew [John Knox Press, 1975], page 343)

R.T. France (Anglican/Protestant Evangelical) --

"The terms [binding and loosing] thus refer to a teaching function, and more specifically one of making halakhic pronouncements [i.e. relative to laws not written down in the Jewish Scriptures but based on an oral interpretation of them] which are to be 'binding' on the people of God. In that case Peter's 'power of the keys' declared in [Matthew] 16:19 is not so much that of the doorkeeper... but that of the steward (as in Is. 22:22, generally regarded as the Old Testament background to the metaphor of keys here), whose keys of office enable him to regulate the affairs of the household." (R.T. France, as cited in Jesus, Peter, and the Keys by Butler/Dahlgren/Hess, page 54)

William F. Albright and C.S. Mann are quite certain when they comment on Matthew 16:19 --

"Isaiah 22:15ff undoubtedly lies behind this saying. The keys are the symbol of authority, and Roland de Vaux [Ancient Israel, tr. by John McHugh, NY: McGraw-Hill, 1961] rightly sees here the same authority as that vested in the vizier, the master of the house, the chamberlain, of the royal household in ancient Israel. Eliakim is described as having the same authority in Isaiah; it was Hilkiah's position until he was ousted, and Jotham as regent is also described as 'over the household' [2 Kings 15:5]....It is of considerable importance that in other contexts, when the disciplinary affairs of the community are being discussed [cf. Matt 18:18; John 20:23] the symbol of the keys is absent, since the sayings apply in those instances to a wider circle....The role of Peter as steward of the Kingdom is further explained as being the exercise of administrative authority, as was the case of the OT chamberlain who held the 'keys.' The clauses 'on earth,' 'in heaven', have reference to the permanent character of the steward's work." (Albright/Mann, The Anchor Bible: Matthew, page 196-197)

The Evangelical New Bible Commentary states on Isaiah 22 --

"Eliakim stands in strong contrast to Shebna, over whom he seems to have been promoted when they reappear in 36:3...Godward he is called my servant (20)...manward he will be a father to his community (21)...The key...of David (22) comes in this context of accountability. A key was a substantial object, tucked in the girdle or slung over the shoulder; but the opening words of v. 22...emphasize the God-given responsibility that went with it, to be used in the king's interests. The 'shutting' and 'opening' means the power to make decisions which no one under the king could override. This is the background of the commission to Peter (cf. Mt 16:19) and to the church (cf. Mt 18:18).... Ultimate authority, however, is claimed, in these terms, for Christ himself (cf. Rev 3:7-8)." (NBC [Intervarsity, 1994], page 647)

Evangelical scholar F.F. Bruce comments --

"And what about the 'keys of the kingdom' ? The keys of a royal or noble establishment were entrusted to the chief steward or majordomo; he carried them on his shoulder in earlier times, and there they served as a badge of the authority entrusted to him. About 700 B.C. an oracle from God announced that this authority in the royal palace in Jerusalem was to be conferred on a man called Eliakim ....(Isaiah 22:22). So in the new community which Jesus was about to build, Peter would be, so to speak, chief steward." (Bruce, The Hard Sayings of Jesus [Intervarsity, 1983], 143-144, as cited in Butler/Dahlgren/Hess, page 41)

Joachim Jeremias in an extended passage from Kittel's Greek standard --

"...the key of David is now (3:7) the key which Christ has in His hands as the promised shoot of David. This is the key to God's eternal palace. The meaning of the description is that Christ has unlimited sovereignty over the future world. He alone controls grace and judgment. He decides irrevocably whether a man will have access to the salvation of the last age or whether it will be witheld from him...Materially, then, the keys of the kingdom of God are not different from the key of David...This is confirmed by the fact that in Mt. 16:19, as in Rev. 3:7, Jesus is the One who controls them. But in what sense is the power of the keys given to Peter? ....the handing over of the keys is not just future. It is regarded as taking place now... There are numerous instances to show that in biblical and later Jewish usage handing over the keys implies full authorisation. He who has the keys has full authority. Thus, when Eliakim is given the keys of the palace he is appointed the royal steward (Is. 22:22, cf. 15). When Jesus is said to hold the keys of death and Hades (Rev. 1:18) or the key of David (3:7), this means that He is, not the doorkeeper, but the Lord of the world of the dead and the palace of God...Hence handing over the keys implies appointment to full authority. He who has the keys has on the one side control, e.g., over the council chamber or treasury, cf. Mt. 13:52, and on the other the power to allow or forbid entry, cf. Rev. 3:7...Mt. 23:13 leads us a step further. This passage is particularly important for an understanding of Mt. 16:19 because it is the only one in the NT which presupposes an image not found elsewhere, namely, that of the keys of the kingdom (royal dominion) of God...Mt. 23:13 shows us that the scribes of the time of Jesus claimed to possess the power of the keys in respect of this kingdom...They exercised this by declaring the will of God in Holy Scripture in the form of preaching, teaching and judging. Thereby they opened up for the congregation a way into this kingdom...by acting as spiritual leaders of the congregation....As Lord of the Messianic community He thus transferred the keys of God's royal dominion, i.e. the full authority of proclamation, to Peter...In Rabb. lit. binding and loosing are almost always used in respect of halahkic decisions...The scribe binds (declares to be forbidden) and looses (declares to be permitted)...In Mt. 16:19, then, we are to regard the authority to bind and to loose as judicial. It is the authority to pronounce judgment on unbelievers and to promise forgiveness to believers." (Jeremias from Kittel/Bromiley, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, volume 3, page 748-751)

We see in the NT Scriptures that the Apostles passed their authority on. One example is Paul passing his teaching authority to Timothy (1 Tim 1:3; 3:2; 4:11-16; 5:17; 6:2ff; 2 Tim 1:13-14). Timothy will also pass on his authority (2 Tim 2:2). Where in the Bible does it say that the Apostles passed their authority ONLY to their letters? Scripture Alone? Sola Scriptura wasn’t the intent of Jesus at all. The original apostolic Church didn’t practice Sola Scriptura either. Protestant apologist James R. White frankly admits this in his online article on the Bereans and Sola Scriptura:

"...the doctrine [of sola scriptura] speaks of a rule of faith that exists. What do I mean by this? ...You will never find anyone saying, 'During times of enscripturation -- that is, when new revelation was being given -- sola scriptura was operational.' Protestants do not assert that sola scriptura is a valid concept during times of revelation. How could it be, since the rule of faith to which it points was at that very time coming into being? One must have an existing rule of faith to say it is 'sufficient.' It is a canard to point to times of revelation and say, 'See, sola scriptura doesn't work there!' Of course it doesn't. Who said it did?" (article "The Bereans Rejected Sola Scriptura?" by James White from http://www.aomin.org)

What is Julie going to do with this admission from James White? If Sola Scriptura was not a "valid concept" while the apostles were alive (or the OT prophets, see 2 Chron 29:25), then it was certainly not practiced by Jesus or His apostles. James White admits it was not true in the first century. When did Sola Scriptura become true and valid? Immediately upon the death of the apostles? What kind of logic is that? Did Sola Scriptura become true and valid when the NT books were finally canonized by the Catholic Church in the fourth century AD? Where is the proof it became true and valid then or at any time in the history of the Church?

The early believers in the first century didn’t believe that Jesus resurrected because the Gospel of Luke says so, but they believed this because the Apostles and eyewitnesses taught it and handed on that belief (1 Cor 15:1-8; 2 Peter 1:16). They knew the Gospels before they were ever written. The early Christians followed the "apostles' teaching" and apostolic tradition as the "Word of God" (Acts 2:42; 1 Cor 11:2; 1 Thess 2:13; 2 Thess 2:15; 3:6) before any of it was written down. One would not argue with the Apostles because someone interpreted one of their letters differently. If I said that circumcision is necessary for salvation, am I in error? Of course I am. Why? Because the Apostles infallibly declared that circumcision isn’t necessary (Acts 15). Is it infallible because it is written in the Acts of the Apostles? No. It is infallible because the Apostles declared it, and whatever they bind and loose has been bound and loosed by God in heaven (Matthew 16:19; 18:18). That teaching has been passed down to us today.

An important point to keep in mind: The New Testament didn’t give birth to the Church, the Church gave birth to the New Testament. I don't believe Julie can dispute that.

Another example of the early Church's authority is the case of Ptolemy, Barnabas, and Marcion. Marcion of Pontus believed an inferior god in the Old Testament who was so ignorant, the god could not find Adam (Gen 3:9). Barnabas believed that the Jews lost the covenant immediately after Moses received it when the Jews worshipped the golden calf. Ptolemy believed in three lawgivers: God Himself, Moses, and the elders of the people. The Church then made some big decisions.

"The Church excommunicated Marcion and condemned Marcionism. Barnabas found no disciples. Ptolemy's principles were rejected. Generally, the early Church did not define its teachings on its own initiative. Instead, it defined them by reacting. Only when someone announced, "I've got it all figured out," did the Church take a long look at the solution, measure it against its sense of the faith, and often enough say, "No, you don't; that's not in line with our faith." Thus, in rejecting Marcion as a heretic, in not following Barnabas, and in not accepting Ptolemy's principles, the Church made some important affirmations." (The Bible, the Church, and Authority by Joseph T. Lienhard, page 19)

We still have these kinds of problems today. A good example is contraception. Is contraception a sin? Is slavery a sin? Is modern "MTV type" dancing appropriate? Those are tough questions to answer. And we HAVE to know the truth on these issues. If we don’t, then Christianity would fall into religious relativism and subjectivism.

Sacred Tradition

One mistake that Protestant apologists make is that they think that tradition is a totally separate revelation. They keep on asking what "other revelation" is not contained in Scripture. There are a lot of things that are implicitly mentioned in Scripture but we need tradition for the fullness of the Christian faith and to keep the Gospel correct, orthodox and balanced. As St. Athanasius has said,

"The blessed Apostle approves of the Corinthians because, he says, 'ye remember me in all things, and keep the traditions as I delivered them to you' (1 Cor 11:2); but they [the Arian heretics], as entertaining such views of their predecessors, will have the daring to say just the reverse to their flocks: 'We praise you not for remembering your fathers, but rather we make much of you, when you hold not their traditions.' And let them go on to accuse their own unfortunate birth, and say, 'We are sprung not of religious men but of heretics.' For such language, as I said before, is consistent in those who barter their Fathers' fame and their own salvation for Arianism, and fear not the words of the divine proverb, 'There is a generation that curseth their father' (Prov. xxx. 11; Ex. xxi. 17), and the threat lying in the Law against such. They then, from zeal for the heresy, are of this obstinate temper; you, however, be not troubled at it, nor take their audacity for truth. For they dissent from each other, and, whereas they have revolted from their Fathers, are not of one and the same mind, but float about with various and discordant changes. And, as quarrelling with the Council of Nicaea, they have held many Councils themselves, and have published a faith in each of them, and have stood to none, nay, they will never do otherwise, for perversely seeking, they will never find that Wisdom which they hate. I have accordingly subjoined portions both of Arius's writings and of whatever else I could collect, of their publications in different Councils; whereby you will learn to your surprise with what object they stand out against an Ecumenical Council and their own Fathers without blushing." (Councils of Ariminum and Seleucia 14)

"Therefore let them [the Arians] tell us, from what teacher or by what tradition they derived these notions concerning the Saviour? "We have read," they will say, "in the Proverbs, 'The Lord created me a beginning of His ways unto His works;'" this Eusebius and his fellows used to insist on, and you write me word, that the present men also, though overthrown and confuted by an abundance of arguments, still were putting about in every quarter this passage, and saying that the Son was one of the creatures, and reckoning Him with things originated. But they seem to me to have a wrong understanding of this passage also; for it has a religious and very orthodox sense, which had they understood, they would not have blasphemed the Lord of glory." (De Decretis 13)

"Had Christ's enemies thus dwelt on these thoughts, and recognised the ecclesiastical scope as an anchor for the faith, they would not have made shipwreck of the faith, nor been so shameless as to resist those who would fain recover them from their fall, and to deem those as enemies who are admonishing them to be religious." (Discourses Against the Arians 3.58)

In summary, the heretics were the ones who rejected the Church's tradition, the Church's interpretation of Scripture,  and the Church's faith. That is NOT Sola Scriptura as taught by St. Athanasius.

Athanasius also wrote about the authority of the Catholic Church to make binding decisions as the true Catholic faith to be believed by all Christians:

"See, we are proving that this view has been transmitted from father to father; but ye, O modern Jews and disciples of Caiaphas, how many fathers can ye assign to your phrases? Not one of the understanding and wise; for all abhor you, but the devil alone; none but he is your father in this apostasy, who both in the beginning sowed you with the seed of this irreligion, and now persuades you to slander the Ecumenical Council, for committing to writing, not your doctrines, but that which from the beginning those who were eye-witnesses and ministers of the Word have handed down to us. For the faith which the Council has confessed in writing, that is the faith of the Catholic Church; to assert this, the blessed Fathers so expressed themselves while condemning the Arian heresy; and this is a chief reason why these apply themselves to calumniate the Council. For it is not the terms which trouble them, but that those terms prove them to be heretics, and presumptuous beyond other heresies." (De Decretis 27)

Now, I don’t want to debate the early Church Fathers because they are really irrelevant for Julie. She doesn’t think that the writings of the Fathers are authoritative or reliable for doctrine, so it doesn’t matter if she quotes them. What I want her to prove however is that Sola Scriptura is biblical and logical. I hope Julie does not try to shift the burden of proof.

There are some things however, that we Catholics consider as tradition that are not mentioned in the Bible. One is the titles of Jesus and Mary. Mary has been called the “New Eve” from the very beginning and Jesus has been called “The Divine Physician”. Also, the form of Worship, which is the Liturgy. Another would be infant baptism (which is implied in the household baptisms seen in the Acts of the Apostles). Another would be prayers for the dead (as seen in 2 Maccabees 12). Another would be the canon of the New Testament itself. All of these were passed on, developed and finally decided upon by the Catholic Church. These are some of the apostolic doctrines and practices that we see in the early Church Fathers.

But back to our main question: Is "Scripture Alone" taught in the Bible? Was it passed down from the apostles? I want Julie to prove that Sola Scriptura is taught in the Bible. That is the only authority she accepts, so she must prove it from there. Now, I know that (as the Catholic Church teaches) the Bible is authoritative, inspired, and such, but is it (as the resolution for this debate states) the only infallible rule of faith? And who actually defines Sola Scriptura? And who interprets Scripture? Do the bishops interpret scripture? Can just anyone interpret Scripture authoritatively? Or do Christians have to submit to the bishops’ interpretation of the Bible and Word of God (Hebrews 13:7,17) ?

The verse that Julie might give is the famous one from 2 Timothy 3:16-17 --

“All scripture is inspired and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, in order that the man of God may be fit, fully equipped for every good work.”

First, that passage does not say that Scripture is "sufficient." Second, a Catholic believes that Scripture is inspired and profitable. Third, Paul used the word "alone" many times, and this would be the best place to put it if he was teaching Sola Scriptura. There are things that Christians have to know when they read the letter to Timothy. First, we have to know that Paul is instructing Timothy. Second, did Timothy consider this letter as Scripture? Actually, Timothy is submitting to the authority of Paul. Since Paul taught him, Timothy has to submit. Timothy recognized the authority of Paul. I would like to continue this when Julie actually gives me a biblical verse for Sola Scriptura.

Early History

Catholics believe that revelation ceased after the last apostle died. The question is, were the apostolic traditions still authoritative? Christians used tradition as their authority more than Scripture for decades after the Gospels were written.

"In the period of Apostolic Fathers, it is still the words of Jesus, rather than any written Gospel, that are authoritative. When the Apostolic Fathers quote the Scriptures (and not all of them do), they almost invariably mean the Old Testament. They do not have a New Testament. But they quote the words of Jesus as authoritative seventeen times. A few passages will show an important pattern evolving. In a few cases the Apostolic Fathers quote one of the Gospels verbatim. Polycarp of Smyrna writes: “